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QUESTION 1
A customer is currently using Cisco UCS to unite computing, networking, storage access, and virtualization. The customer is upgrading their data center and is open to working with another vendor for the upgrade. Which HP Converged System option is a viable alternative for this customer?

A. BladeSystem and Virtual Connect
B. Systems Insight Manager
C. AppSystem
D. HP OneView

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is a core building block in the HP Datacenter Care service solution?

A. Proactive Care Service
B. Life Cycle Service
C. Implementation Service
D. Personalized Support Service

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A traditional siloed application deployment across different cloud models results in multiple implementations and configurations for each lifecycle stage for each version of the application. Which HP Converged Cloud portfolio offering uses a model-based service design and re-usable infrastructure templates so that an application can be modeled once and provisioned across all cloud models?

A. Cloud OS
B. Cloud Service Automation
C. Matrix Operating Environment
D. CloudSystem Matrix

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which technology eliminates vendor lock-in and enables application portability in HP public clouds?

A. OpenStack
B. Virtualization
C. Kernel-based virtual machines
D. CloudStack

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to update their CloudSystem Matrix software. Which cloud operation service offering should you recommend?

A. Proactive Care
B. Converged Cloud Support
C. Enhanced Premier
D. Datacenter Care

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Why is a hybrid cloud delivery model attractive to IT executives?

A. It offers the greatest variety when meeting SU\s and specific workload requirements.
B. It allows the greatest flexibility when transferring workloads between cloud implementations.
C. It addresses service delivery challenges in the most efficient and cost-effective way.
D. It is the best match for customer application configurations and performance requirements.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
How does the HP Converged Cloud delivery model differ from that of the competition?

A. Common architecture
B. Homogeneous approach
C. Single cloud delivery type
D. Siloed deployment

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is tasked with installing an application patch on a virtual server. The administrator needs the ability to restore the server to its previous state quickly if the patch corrupts the system. Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this task?

A. Install the patch on a development server
B. Create a full backup
C. Create a snapshot
D. Install the patch on a test server

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following cloud delivery models presents the LEAST vulnerabilities to a company’s existing network?

A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Public
D. Private

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?

A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is used to locate a specific area of storage in a cloud environment?

A. Object ID
B. SAN
C. Replicas
D. Metadata

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following can be done after an administrator deploys a virtual server to ensure that the server vNIC can communicate to the physical network?

A. Bridge the vNIC
B. Set the vNIC speed to half-duplex
C. Add an addition vNIC
D. Set the vNIC speed to full-duplex

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual environment, the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the administrator have done FIRST before migrating this server?

A. Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B. Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C. Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D. Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud environment?

A. CHAP
B. AES
C. PKI
D. VPN

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented a data encryption technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the administrator implement NEXT?

A. Access controls
B. RC5
C. SSL
D. Zoning

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior administrator notices that these ten VMs are not using their resources efficiently. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue with the new servers?

A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following storage technologies is file-based?

A. WAN
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following storage technologies can leverage switches in its implementation?

A. HBA
B. DAS
C. SCSI
D. SAN

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following RAID configuration would be used to accomplish disk mirroring with two disks?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following only uses Fibre Channel to implement a storage infrastructure?

A. NFS
B. SAN
C. NAS
D. SMB

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following solutions primarily relies on private cloud resources but may use public cloud resources based on capacity requirements?

A. Rapid deployment
B. Cloud bursting
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Pay-as-you-grow

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
An employee is asked to run an instance of a Linux OS while booted up in a Windows OS. Which of the following types of virtualization would be used to meet this requirement?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Bare Metal
D. Native

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An administrator is planning to implement multipathing for IP-based storage. Which of the following protocols can be used in this configuration?

A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
D. FCoE

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following, in conjunction with IPSec, can be configured to provide secure access to files on a NAS?

A. iSCSI
B. CIFS
C. FCoE
D. SSH

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A system administrator is planning storage infrastructure to store backup copies of virtual machines that are at least 5GB in size. Which of the following file systems can be used in this scenario? (Select TWO).

A. SMB
B. RAW
C. EXT
D. FAT E. NTFS

Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
Which of the following can be used to enable out-of-band management of a Windows-based host?

A. IPMI
B. WMI
C. SMTP
D. SNMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An administrator notices that the mouse does not perform as expected within a VM. Which of the following might improve the performance of the mouse?

A. Install a 64-bit OS within the guest.
B. Enable USB port mapping.
C. Replace the mouse on the host server.
D. Install the virtualization guest software.

Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A recently deployed VM is running a Human Resource (HR) application on the HR network. Workstations in the accounting department can access the Internet and other accounting servers, but are unable to ping the new VM. Which of the following must be enabled for the accounting department to access this HR application?

A. The computers must be granted read rights to the VM.
B. Replace the accounting workgroup switch.
C. VLAN routing should be enabled on the router.
D. Disable port security on the HR workgroup switch.

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
An administrator deployed a VM that is hosting an internal website. Users report they are unable to access the new website. Which of the following should the network administrator do to test whether web traffic is being sent and received?

A. Browse to any website
B. Ping the VM’s IP address
C. Ping the VM’s loopback address
D. Telnet to port 80

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following would be used to advertise a public IP address on redundant WAN circuits?

A. BGP
B. UDP
C. OSPF
D. ICMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A company has deployed a website which is mirrored at a secondary datacenter. Which of the following should be changed to route users to the secondary datacenter in case of a primary site failure?

A. Virtual address
B. DNS record
C. ARP table
D. Disaster recovery plan

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
A security administrator is being hired to perform a penetration test of a third-party cloud provider as part of an annual security audit. Which of the following is the FIRST step that must be performed?

A. Attempt known exploits
B. Scan for vulnerabilities
C. Research publicized incidents
D. Get written permission

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
How do network administrators identify problem areas and locate them in the context of access point floor, building, and campus locations?

A. Cisco EnergyWise
B. Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator Sustainability Dashboard
C. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliance
D. Air Quality Index charts

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which service should you use if you want application performance that optimizes user experience for any application, at any time, on any device?

A. Cisco TrustSec9
B. Application Velocity
C. Cisco Motion
D. Cisco AnyConnect

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two of the following does medianet capacity planning involve? (Choose two.)

A. how much video has been run over the network in the past 30 days
B. the size of the video that is running
C. determining how much video is currently running over the network
D. the buffer requirements for each type of video
E. determining if the video that is running is standard definition or high definition

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Security Control Framework key action addresses the ability of an infrastructure to withstand, adjust to, or recover from adverse uncontrolled circumstances?

A. Monitor
B. Enforce
C. Adjust
D. Harden

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following collects and analyzes the radio information that is sent by the access points, building a comprehensive view of the wireless environment, and automatically takes action to avoid interference or gaps in coverage?

A. Wi-Fi Location System
B. Cisco Wireless Control System
C. Wi-Fi devices
D. WLAN controllers

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
In which two ways can guest user login portals be directly served? (Choose two.)

A. external server
B. headend of a GRE tunnel
C. VPN concentrator
D. IPS device
E. wireless LAN controller

Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the first-ever control system malware that acts as a botnet to steal industrial automation layout design and control files specific to control systems such as Siemens’ supervisory control and data accusation system?

A. URLZone
B. intrusion prevention system
C. Trojan horse
D. Stuxnet

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service design package
C. Service portfolio design
D. Process definitions

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What should a service always deliver to customers?

A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?

A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A. IT services and components
B. IT services and business processes
C. Components and business processes
D. IT services, components and business processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management? 1. Those planned to be delivered 2. Those being delivered 3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
The BEST description of an incident is:

A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found

A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
When comparing PBX architectures to Cisco Unified Communications, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:

A. A PBX will offer increased security.
B. Cisco Unified Communications will always offer more enhanced telephony features.
C. A PBX architecture will offer applications like presence and seamless video.
D. Cisco Unified Communications will increase productivity.
E. Cisco Unified Communications has historically provided customers with a migration path for upgrades and growth.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Where will an account manager find historical and current information about competitors around Cisco Collaboration? Select exactly 1 answer(s) form the following:

A. Quick Start Guide for Cisco Collaboration
B. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
C. Cisco Qoute Builder tool
D. The Cisco Quote Builder tool
E. Steps to Success

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two of the following are typical questions that you might receive from a customer CFO about your unified communications solution? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:

A. How does it elevate the role and value of IT in the business?
B. Does it help drive business growth and profitability? Is it a strategic investment?
C. What does it do for employees?
D. Does it use existing investments to add business value?
E. How does it improve customer service?

Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Where do the business drivers of the customer derive from? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following;

A. Corporate strategy
B. Enabling technologies
C. Personal visions and goals
D. Changing demand in the marketplace

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What are two benefits of the Cisco Unified IP Phones 9900 Series? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:

A. All phones support up to three expansion modules.
B. They deliver high-definition voice.
C. The phones reduce communications delays with rich presence and contact information.
D. There is an option for an integrated video camera.
E. The Cisco Unified IP Phone 9900 is a softphone.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which two of the following are the main differentiators of Cisco Collaboration against the competition? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco collaboration is designed to support interoperability with the solutions of other vendors.
B. Based on a strong IP network, Cisco offers fully integrated collaboration architecture.
C. Cisco is open to integration or being integrated in any other collaboration solution seamlessly.
D. Cisco solutions allow customers the highest operational agility, more than competitive solutions.
E. Cisco growth is organic and not based on large mergers with other leading vendors.

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
Can a Flash Lite application play MP3 audio embedded into a SWF file Movie Clip?

A. No, Flash Lite supports only MIDI audio format.
B. No, Flash Lite supports only MP4 audio format.
C. Yes, Flash Lite supports any type of audio format.
D. Yes, but only if the mobile phone supports MP3 audio format.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When deploying a game for use on Symbian phones with the Flash Lite 1.1 player pre-installed, what freely available tool can be used to create an installer (.sis file)?

A. unsis.exe
B. makesis.exe
C. sismaker.exe
D. mromizE. Exe

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What file type is used to install games and applications to Symbian handsets?

A. ZIP
B. MSI
C. SIS
D. TAR

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Can desktop Flash UI components be used in a Flash Lite application?

A. Yes, but only AS 1.0 components.
B. No, desktop Flash UI components cannot be used.
C. Yes, any desktop Flash UI components can be used.
D. Yes, but only the Button, Combo Box, Checkbox and Radio Button UI components.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Given the stage displayed. What is the most likely use of the selected blue box off stage if it is a button symbol?

A. store and access configuration variables
B. key catcher handler for catching device keys
C. store and access persistent data within the application
D. used when a duplicate Movie Clip is used later on in the timeline
E. target and store variables issued by a load Variables command

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
After creating a custom button named “my button” on the Stage, a yellow outline around the button appears when it is selected. How can this be disabled?

A. _focusrect = false;
B. _focus = false;
C. focusrect = false;
D. mybutton._focusrect = false;
E. mybutton.focusrect = false;
F. fscommand( “setFocusRect”, “false” );
G. fscommand2( “setFocusRect”, “false” );

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When a button receives focus, how is the outline surrounding the button defined?

A. bounding box of the button’s visible key frames
B. exact shape of the contents in the “hit” key frame
C. exact shape of the contents in the “up” key frame
D. bounding box of the contents in the “hit” key frame

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A button has key frame content for its “up”, “over”, and “hit” key frames. The “down” state has no key frame. What is displayed when the user activates the button’s “down” state?

A. nothing
B. content of the “up” key frame
C. content of the “hit” key frame
D. content of the “over” key frame

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What is the best method for ensuring that elements on a layer are NOT part of the published SWF file?

A. set the layer to be a guide layer
B. move those elements off of the stage area
C. turn the layer to hidden in the layer properties
D. reduce the alpha transparency of those elements to zero

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When should a gradient be converted to a raster graphic instead of a vector for performance in Flash Lite?

A. always
B. when the gradient needs to look smoother
C. when there are more than 3 colors in the gradient
D. when the shape with the gradient fill has many points and is not a simple geometric object

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What method of code looping offers the best performance for Flash Lite?

A. a ‘for’ loop
B. a ‘while’ loop
C. a ‘for…in’ loop
D. a ‘timeline’ loop

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What are possible causes of an animation playing slowly or stuttering on a target device when the animation plays fine on the developer’s PC? (Choose THREE)

A. background is a bitmap
B. use of many timeline layers
C. animation of a complex vector background
D. Tweening the alpha property of a Movie Clip
E. several smaller animations play at the same time

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 13
Why use bitmap graphics in a Flash Lite application? (Choose TWO)

A. Bitmaps scale without quality loss
B. Bitmap background can speed up animation above it
C. Bitmaps are much smaller in file size than vector graphics
D. Bitmaps display complex graphics without hurting performance

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
The IBM FileNet Process Engine is unable to start after an upgrade. Customer-provided background information (also known as MustGather data) is being requested by the IBM support engineer. What command should be run to gather operating system configuration and error reports on a Red Hat Enterprise Server system?

A. errpt -a
B. /usr/sbin/dmesg
C. /usr/sbin/prtdiag -v
D. wevtutil epl System Systemlog.evtx

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A security administrator has created an IBM FileNet Content Engine service account for connecting to the LDAP directory server. Which of the following is NOT true about this account?

A. Can be accessed using referrals.
B. Acts as the bind user specified by the application server.
C. Serves as the GCD user that searches users and groups.
D. Must have read access to the forest-wide configuration directory partition.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When configuring a Storage Area to be used by a UNIX hosted IBM FileNet Content Engine, which of the following statements is always true?

A. The ce_appserver_install_group must have read access to the Storage Area file system.
B. The ce_os_group must only have read and execute access to the Storage Area file system.
C. The ce_os_user must have read, write, and execute access to the Storage Area file system.
D. The ce_appserver_install_user must have read, write, and execute access to the Storage Area file system.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A security administrator has been assigned the task of creating a Content Engine bootstrap account. The account must be able perform the following task: establish a connection to the application server, access the JNDI lookup tree and lookup the data source for accessing the GCD. What other function does the Content Engine bootstrap account need to perform?

A. Create the data sources for the GCD.
B. Startup the Content Engine application.
C. Startup the Content Engine background tasks.
D. Startup the Content Engine application server.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An IBM client is planning the implementation of a IBM FileNet P8 Platform and needs to identify the solution components. What are the IBM FileNet P8 V5.1 core components?

A. Content Engine, Process Engine, and Application Engine
B. Image Manager, Process Engine, Application Engine, Workplace XT and Rendition Engine
C. Content Engine, Process Engine, Application Engine, Workplace XT, and Rendition Engine
D. Content Engine, Process Engine, Application Engine, Workplace XT and Enterprise Records

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
While configuring the LDAP settings in Configuration Manager to point to an Active Directory server, an installer clicks the Test LDAP Connection button. A dialog box appears stating the test has failed. Which Microsoft Windows Server event log would you check to help determine the cause?

A. System event log
B. Directory Service event log
C. Active Directory Server event log
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol event log

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A P8 administrator for a company just finished deploying IBM FileNet P8 V5.1. The administrator wants to use FileNet Enterprise Manager (FEM) to logon to P8 to perform further tasks. An error occurs immediately upon logging on to P8. The administrator would like to use log4j to troubleshoot the issue. Which sample log4j file should the administrator use?

A. \FileNet\ContentEngine\samples\log4j.xml.server
B. \FileNet\ContentEngine\samples\log4j.properties.client
C. \FileNet\ContentEngine\config\samples\log4j.xml.server
D. \FileNet\ContentEngine\config\samples\log4j.properties.client

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An upgrade to a basic IBM FileNet P8 V5.1 BPM installation from IBM FileNet P8 V4.0 is being planned. To minimize the downtime the customer wants to do staged upgrades. The Application Engine is at V4.0.2 with the latest fix pack already installed. What is the best way to determine the impact of installing fix packs in planning for this scenario?

A. No extra planning is necessary as you always install the latest fix packs during any upgrade.
B. Use the IBM FileNet P8 V5.X Fix Pack Compatibility Matrix to determine which fix packs are compatible.
C. Go to Fix Central, review the fix pack Readme files for the new version applicable fix packs, and only include those that are marked”REQUIRED”.
D. Go to Fix Central, review all the latest component fix pack Readme files for dependencies, and exclude them if the fixes do not relate to thesystem.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A P8 administrator fails to logon to an IBM FileNet P8 V5.1 system when using Workplace XT. FileNet Enterprise Manager (FEM) is able to connect to P8 without issues. The administrator would like to use log4j with Workplace XT to further troubleshoot the issue. In which directory should the log4j file be placed so that logging is enabled for Workplace XT?

A. /FileNet/Config/AE
B. /FileNet/Config/WebClient
C. /FileNet/CEClient/config/samples
D. /FileNet/AE/CE_API/config/samples

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A consultant has installed an IBM FileNet Process Engine client fix pack on a 3 node, horizontally load balanced Application Engine installation. After an interactive installation, some users are seeing the same problem intermittently, rather than constantly, as it was before the fix pack was installed. What could still be the issue?

A. The fix pack did not correct the problem.
B. The fix pack install script did not deploy the war file properly.
C. The fix pack installer did not delete an application server temp directory.
D. The fix pack install script did not delete an Application Server temp directory.

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A P8 Administrator of a company would like to use vwtool to run a trace on region 2. What would be the correct command to switch to region 2?

A. vwtool -region 2
B. vwtool:1>region 2
C. vwtool:2:>region 2
D. vwtool:1>regions 2

Answer: B

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