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Cisco 642-874 Dumps

The 642-874 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) exam is the exam associated with the CCDP certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the latest development in network design and technologies, including network infrastructure, intelligent network services and converged network solutions. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the ARCH Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures course.

Lead2Pass CCDP 642-874 exam questions which contain almost 100% correct answers are tested and approved by senior Cisco lecturers and experts. They have been devoting themselves to providing candidates with the best study materials to make sure what they get are valuable. 642-874 practice tests are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy which can make you succeed in the exam.

QUESTION 1
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A.    FlexLinks
B.    loop-free U
C.    looped square
D.    looped triangle
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
As a critical part of the design for the Enterprise Campus network, which of the following two are true concerning intrusion detection and prevention solution? (Choose two)
A.    IDS is capable of both inline and promiscuous monitoring, while IPS is only capable of promiscuous monitoring
B.    IDS will stop malicious traffic from reaching its intended target for certain types of attacks.
C.    IPS processes information on Layer 3 and 4 as well as analyzing the contents and payload of the packets for more sophisticated embedded attacks (Layers 3 to 7)
D.    IPS inspects traffic statefully and needs to see both sides of the connection to function properly
E.    IDS placement at the perimeter of Data Center outside the firewall generates many warnings that have relatively low value because no action is likely to be taken on this information
Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas?
A.    OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B.    OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C.    OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D.    OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain
E.    OSPF totally stubby cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the areas
Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two)
A.    An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B.    Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C.    Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type
D.    Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated
E.    Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second
Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which of these technologies is characterized as being a multipoint Layer 2 VPN that connects two or more customer devices using Ethernet bridging techniques?
A.    DPT
B.    MPLS
C.    VPLS
D.    CWDM
E.    DWDM
F.    SONET/SDH
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Why is STP required when VLANs span access layer switches?
A.    to ensure a loop-free topology
B.    to protect against user-side loops
C.    in order to support business applications
D.    because of the risk of lost connectivity without STP
E.    for the most deterministic and highly available network topology
Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When designing the IP routing for the Enterprise Campus network, which of these following two iBGB considerations should be taken into account?
A.    iBGB dual horning with different iSPs puts the Enterprise at the risk of becoming a transit network
B.    iBGP requires a full mesh of eBGP peers
C.    Routers will not advertise iBGP learned routes to other iBGP peers.
D.    The use of route reflections or Confederation eliminate any full mesh requirement while helping to scale iBGP
E.    iGBP peers do not add any information to the AS path
Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which virtualization technology allows multiple physical devices to be combined into a single logical device?
A.    device visualization
B.    device clustering
C.    server visualization
D.    network visualization
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are characteristics of MPLS VPNs? (Choose two)
A.    Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward only IP packets
B.    Layer 2 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol
C.    MPL S label paths are automatically formed based on Layer 2 frames
D.    Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol based on Layer 2 frames
E.    In Layer 2 MPLS VPNS, the service provider controls the customer Layer 3 policies
Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and designed performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider?
A.    FHRP to remote branches.
B.    Layer 3 MPLS VPNs routing.
C.    Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service.
D.    Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide.
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two restrictions must the Enterprise Campus network designer consider when evaluating WAN connectivity options? (Choose two)
A.    OSPF over multiaccess EMS or VPLS network may not have consistent broadcast or multicast performance
B.    IP multicast is not supported over Lover 3 MPLS VPN; instead a Layer 2 MPLS WN must be utilized with service provider support
C.    QoS requirements with MPLS-VPN must be implemented by the service provider
D.    Hierarchical VPLS designs are the least scalable
E.    IGMP snooping is not on option with VPLS or EMS; instead administrative scoping or allowing sufficient bandwidth for unnecessary multicast traffic at the edge links is required
Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
There are 3 steps to confirm whether a range of IP address can be summarized. When of the following is used in each of these 3 steps?
A.    The first number in the contiguous block of addresses
B.    The last number in the contiguous block of addresses
C.    The size of the contiguous block of addresses
D.    The subnet mask of the original network address
Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of these recommendations is most appropriate for the core layer in the Cisco Campus Architecture?
A.    Utilize Layer 3 switching
B.    Utilize software accelerated services
C.    Aggregate end users and support a feature-rich environment
D.    Perform packet manipulation and filtering at the core layer
E.    Use redundant point to-point Layer 2 interconnections when where is a link or node failure.
Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is true concerning best design practices at the switched Access layer of the traditional layer2 Enterprise Campus Network?
A.    Cisco NSF with SSO and redundant supervisors has the most impact on the campus in the Access layer
B.    Provides host-level redundancy by connecting each end device to 2 separate Access switches
C.    Offer default gateway redundancy by using dual connections from Access switches to redundant Distribution layer switches using a FHRP
D.    Include a link between two Access switches to support summarization of routing information
Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three)
A.    Flex Links
B.    loop free U
C.    looped square
D.    looped triangle
E.    loop-tree inverted U
Answer: BCE

QUESTION 16
In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A.    core layer
B.    Internet boundary
C.    aggregation layer
D.    aggregation and core layers
E.    access and aggregation layers
Answer: A

QUESTION 17
When an Enterprise Campus network designer is addressing the merger of two companies with different IGPs, which of the following is considering a super routing design?
A.    Eliminate the management and support for redistribution by choosing and cutting over to a single IGP at the time of merger
B.    Maintain distinct pockets across a moving boundary of routing protocols, redistributing between them
C.    Manipulate the administrative distance of the different IGPs to be equal throughout the network
D.    Leave the IGPs independent without redistribution wherever communication between company entities is not required
Answer: B

QUESTION 18
From a design perspective which two of the following OSPF Statements are most relevant? (Choose two)
A.    OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization
B.    OSPF cannot filter intra area routes
C.    An ABR can only exist in two areas – the backbone and one adjacent area
D.    Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some traffic to transit a non-backbone area
E.    the size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by the size of the IP MTU
Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A.    when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks
B.    when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C.    when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D.    when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E.    when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks
F.    when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks
Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A.    IP address space is difficult to manage.
B.    Broadcast and fault domains arc increased
C.    Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D.    Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
E.    Fast uplink convergence is supported tor failover and fallback
Answer: AE

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